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I am considering the following question related to the randomness of Mobius function $ \mu(n)$ : $ \mu(n)$ is defined as : $ \mu(1)=1$ , $ \mu(p_1…p_t)=(-1)^t$ , $ \forall t\in N^*$ $ p_1,…,p_t$ are different primes, $ \mu(n)=0$ if $ \exists p$ is a prime, $ p^2|n$ . My question is, given $ k\inRead more